General Patient Care — practice questions

18.7% of the exam ≈28 real questions 28 free questions here

The single biggest block on the exam — 28 scored items. Medication administration, injections, wound care, sterile technique, patient positioning and in-office emergencies. Most items are scenario-based: you are given a patient situation and must choose what to do, in what order.

Where people lose points

• Injection angles: intradermal is 10-15°, subcutaneous is 45° (or 90° with a short needle), intramuscular is 90°. Candidates reliably mix up the first two.
• The ventrogluteal site is preferred over the dorsogluteal for adult IM injections — dorsogluteal risks the sciatic nerve.
• For infants and toddlers under 3, the vastus lateralis is the IM site, not the deltoid.
• Sterile technique and medical asepsis are different standards. Assisting with minor surgery needs sterile; a routine injection needs clean technique plus antiseptic.
• Know the position by procedure, not by name alone — lithotomy for pelvic exams, Sims' for rectal, Fowler's for respiratory distress, Trendelenburg for shock.

Questions and answers, explained

All 10 questions above, with the correct answer and why it is correct. Everything here is on general patient care.

1. A medical assistant verifies the patient's name and date of birth, matches the drug name to the provider's order, measures the ordered amount, confirms the oral route, and gives the dose at the scheduled time. Which of the six rights of medication administration still must be completed?

   • ARight dose — the ordered amount was measured
   • BRight patient — name and birth date
   • CRight documentation — the chart entryCorrect
   • DRight route — oral was confirmed

   Why: The six rights are right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation. The assistant satisfied the first five, so only documentation in the medical record remains, and it must be entered immediately after the dose is given. Right dose (A) was already met when the ordered amount was measured.

   Reference Domain 3B General Patient Care; k22 rights of medication administration (six rights)

2. A medical assistant is instilling ear drops for a 40-year-old patient. How should the auricle (pinna) be positioned?

   • APulled down and back
   • BPulled up and backCorrect
   • CPulled straight down toward the jaw
   • DHeld in place without any traction

   Why: In an adult the ear canal curves, so pulling the pinna up and back straightens it and lets the drops reach the tympanic membrane. Down and back (A) is the correct maneuver for a child under 3 years, whose canal has a different angle, so applying it to an adult leaves the canal partially obstructed.

   Reference Domain 3B, task 3B5; k70 techniques related to ear medications

3. Which needle, angle, and technique are correct for placing a Mantoux tuberculin skin test?

   • A25-gauge, 5/8-inch needle at 45 degrees, bevel down
   • B27-gauge, 1/4- to 1/2-inch needle at 5 to 15 degrees, bevel upCorrect
   • C22-gauge, 1-inch needle at 90 degrees, bevel up
   • D27-gauge, 1-inch needle at 45 degrees, bevel down

   Why: CDC specifies a disposable 27-gauge tuberculin syringe with a short 1/4- to 1/2-inch needle inserted bevel up at a 5- to 15-degree angle into the inner surface of the forearm, delivering 0.1 mL. A 45-degree angle (A) is the subcutaneous angle and would deposit the antigen below the dermis, invalidating the test.

   Reference Domain 3B, task 3B6; k72 needle angle, gauge, and length; CDC Clinical Testing Guidance for Tuberculosis: Tuberculin Skin Test (27-gauge tuberculin syringe, bevel up, 0.1 mL intradermal)

4. A provider orders 3 mL of an antibiotic to be given intramuscularly to an adult. Which site should the medical assistant select?

   • ADeltoid, because it is the easiest site to access
   • BDeltoid, divided into two 1.5 mL injections in the same muscle
   • CSubcutaneous tissue of the anterior thigh
   • DVentrogluteal, which accepts volumes up to about 3 mL in an adultCorrect

   Why: The ventrogluteal and vastus lateralis muscles tolerate up to about 3 mL in an adult, while the deltoid is generally limited to about 1 mL and should not exceed 2 mL. Splitting the dose in the deltoid (B) still puts 1.5 mL into that small muscle at each site, exceeding its safe capacity and increasing the risk of tissue damage and poor absorption. Option C also changes the ordered route from intramuscular to subcutaneous, which the medical assistant may not do.

   Reference Domain 3B; k72/k73 injection technique, supplies, and site selection by volume

5. According to CDC guidance, should the medical assistant aspirate (pull back on the plunger) before injecting a vaccine intramuscularly?

   • AYes, for 5 to 10 seconds at every injection site
   • BYes, but only for deltoid injections
   • CYes, but only for pediatric patients
   • DNo; CDC does not recommend aspiration when administering vaccinesCorrect

   Why: CDC states plainly that aspiration is not recommended before administering a vaccine: the practice has never been evaluated scientifically, and evidence indicates it can increase pain because of longer needle dwell time and shearing of the needle in the tissue. Aspirating at every site (A) is an outdated habit carried over from other injectable drugs and is no longer part of recommended vaccine technique.

   Reference Domain 3B; CDC Pink Book ch. 6 Vaccine Administration, Inject Vaccines Rapidly Without Aspiration

6. A medical assistant is restocking the office anaphylaxis kit under the practice's emergency action plan. Which epinephrine concentration and route should the kit be stocked to deliver for an adult in anaphylaxis?

   • A0.1 mg/mL (1:10,000) given intravenously
   • B1 mg/mL (1:1,000) given intramuscularlyCorrect
   • C1 mg/mL (1:1,000) given subcutaneously
   • D0.1 mg/mL (1:10,000) given intradermally

   Why: The first-line treatment for anaphylaxis in an outpatient setting is epinephrine in a 1 mg/mL aqueous solution (1:1,000 concentration) given intramuscularly, preferably in the mid-outer (anterolateral) thigh, and at least three doses should be available onsite. The 0.1 mg/mL (1:10,000) intravenous concentration (A) is a hospital resuscitation product, and the subcutaneous route (C) absorbs too slowly and unreliably during anaphylaxis.

   Reference Domain 3B, task 3B11; k67 anaphylactic shock response and k82 emergency injectables; CDC-referenced Medical Management of Vaccine Reactions in Adults (epinephrine 1 mg/mL, 1:1000, IM, mid-outer thigh; at least 3 doses onsite)

7. What is the recommended temperature range for a vaccine freezer used to store frozen vaccines?

   • A-5°C to 0°C (23°F to 32°F)
   • B-90°C to -60°C (-130°F to -76°F)
   • C-50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F)Correct
   • D-10°C to +5°C (14°F to 41°F)

   Why: CDC requires standard vaccine freezers to maintain -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F). Option B is the separate ultra-cold range (-90°C to -60°C) used for certain specialty products in ultra-cold freezers, not the range for a routine office freezer.

   Reference Domain 3B; k74 storage of injectables; CDC Vaccine Storage and Handling Toolkit, Temperature Ranges

8. At a dressing change four days after a laceration repair, the medical assistant notes thick yellow-green drainage, spreading redness, and warmth around the sutures. The patient asks whether she needs antibiotics. What should the medical assistant do?

   • ATell the patient the wound is infected and that antibiotics will be prescribed
   • BReassure the patient that this drainage is a normal part of healing
   • CClean the wound, redress it, and schedule a routine follow-up next week
   • DDocument the findings, notify the provider now, and say she will evaluateCorrect

   Why: Purulent drainage with spreading erythema and warmth are classic signs of wound infection that must be escalated, and the medical assistant's role is to document what is observed and notify the provider, not to diagnose or promise treatment. Telling the patient she has an infection and will get antibiotics (A) is diagnosing and prescribing, both outside the scope of practice of an unlicensed assistive person.

   Reference Domain 3B, task 3B10; k79 signs and symptoms of wound infection; Domain 1A k1 medical assistant scope of practice

9. A patient had a facial laceration sutured in the office. When are facial sutures typically removed?

   • A3 to 5 daysCorrect
   • B7 to 10 days
   • C10 to 14 days
   • D14 to 21 days

   Why: Facial sutures are typically removed at 3 to 5 days because the face has an excellent blood supply and early removal minimizes suture-track scarring. The 10-to-14-day window (C) applies to the trunk, legs, and areas over joints, where tension across the wound is higher and healing is slower; sutures on the scalp and arms usually come out at about 7 to 10 days.

   Reference Domain 3B, task 3B8; k75 types and sizes of sutures and timing of removal by body site

10. Which position is used for a pelvic examination and Papanicolaou (Pap) test?

    • ASims'
    • BProne
    • CLithotomyCorrect
    • DSemi-Fowler's

    Why: Lithotomy places the patient supine with the hips and knees flexed and the feet or legs supported in stirrups, giving the provider access to the vagina and cervix. Sims' (A) is a left side-lying position used for rectal procedures, not for visualizing the cervix with a speculum.

    Reference Domain 3B, task 3B4; k61 positioning and draping requirements for specialty examinations

Topics inside this domain

• Correcting an error in the medical record
• Informed vs implied consent, and who obtains it
• Medical vs surgical asepsis and Spaulding
• Medical assistant scope of practice
• Injection routes, sites and angles
• Venipuncture vein selection and what to avoid

Drill other domains

• Foundational Knowledge and Basic Science (10%)
• Anatomy and Physiology (5.3%)
• Patient Intake and Vitals (9.3%)
• Infection Control and Safety (10%)
• Point of Care Testing and Laboratory Procedures (6%)
• Phlebotomy (8%)

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