Anatomy and Physiology — practice questions

5.3% of the exam ≈8 real questions 12 free questions here

8 scored items. Body systems, the pathophysiology of conditions you will actually see in an office, and enough microbiology to reason about infection. Breadth matters more than depth here.

Where people lose points

• Directional terms are relative to anatomical position, not to how the patient is currently lying.
• Know which organ sits in which quadrant — abdominal pain questions depend on it.
• Bacterial and viral infections are managed differently, and questions often hinge on which one an antibiotic would actually help.
• The chain of infection is tested as a chain: questions ask which link a specific action breaks.
• Focus your study on the conditions an office actually sees — hypertension, diabetes, asthma and COPD, arthritis, thyroid disorders — over rare pathology.

Questions and answers, explained

All 10 questions above, with the correct answer and why it is correct. Everything here is on anatomy and physiology.

1. A provider asks the medical assistant to prepare a diagram showing the body divided into an anterior (front) portion and a posterior (back) portion. Which body plane describes this division?

   • ASagittal plane
   • BFrontal (coronal) planeCorrect
   • CTransverse plane
   • DMidsagittal plane

   Why: The frontal (coronal) plane runs vertically and divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left portions (the midsagittal into equal halves), and the transverse plane divides it into superior and inferior portions.

   Reference Domain 2A (k36 anatomical structures, locations, positions); standard anatomical plane terminology

2. Which cell structure produces most of the cell's usable energy (ATP)?

   • ARibosome
   • BLysosome
   • CMitochondrionCorrect
   • DCell membrane

   Why: Mitochondria carry out aerobic respiration and generate most of the cell's ATP, which is why they are called the powerhouse of the cell. Ribosomes assemble proteins, lysosomes contain digestive enzymes that break down waste, and the cell membrane controls what enters and leaves the cell.

   Reference Domain 2A (k35 cell structure)

3. Which structure normally initiates each heartbeat and is known as the heart's natural pacemaker?

   • AAtrioventricular (AV) node
   • BBundle of His
   • CSinoatrial (SA) nodeCorrect
   • DPurkinje fibers

   Why: The sinoatrial node, located in the right atrium, generates the electrical impulse that starts each heartbeat, making it the heart's natural pacemaker. The AV node is the closest distractor: it receives the impulse and delays it so the atria can empty before the ventricles contract, but it does not originate it. The bundle of His and Purkinje fibers only conduct the impulse through the ventricles.

   Reference Domain 2A (k37); cardiac conduction system SA node to AV node to bundle of His to bundle branches to Purkinje fibers (NIH/StatPearls)

4. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between inhaled air and the bloodstream takes place in which structures?

   • AAlveoliCorrect
   • BBronchi
   • CTrachea
   • DPleural space

   Why: Gas exchange occurs in the alveoli, thin-walled air sacs surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. The bronchi and trachea are conducting airways that only move air, and the pleural space is the potential space between the membranes lining the lung and the chest wall.

   Reference Domain 2A (k37 respiratory structure and function)

5. Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

   • ALigament
   • BTendonCorrect
   • CCartilage
   • DFascia

   Why: A tendon is the fibrous band that anchors muscle to bone so that muscle contraction moves the skeleton. The ligament is the closest distractor but connects bone to bone at a joint; cartilage cushions joint surfaces and fascia is connective tissue that wraps muscle.

   Reference Domain 2A (k37 musculoskeletal structures)

6. A patient has difficulty with balance and coordinated movement after a stroke. Which part of the brain is most associated with these functions?

   • ACerebrum
   • BCerebellumCorrect
   • CMedulla oblongata
   • DFrontal lobe

   Why: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, posture, and balance. The cerebrum handles higher functions such as thought and the initiation of voluntary movement, and the medulla oblongata controls vital autonomic functions including heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure.

   Reference Domain 2A (k37 nervous system structures and functions)

7. Where does most absorption of digested nutrients into the bloodstream occur?

   • ASmall intestineCorrect
   • BStomach
   • CLarge intestine
   • DEsophagus

   Why: The small intestine, with its villi and microvilli, is where the majority of nutrient absorption occurs. The large intestine mainly reabsorbs water and electrolytes and forms stool, and the stomach chiefly mixes food with acid and enzymes to begin protein digestion.

   Reference Domain 2A (k37 digestive system structure and function)

8. A patient with a history of congestive heart failure reports that she now sleeps propped on three pillows because she becomes short of breath lying flat, and that her shoes no longer fit by evening. These findings are most consistent with:

   • AFluid retention with pulmonary congestion and peripheral edemaCorrect
   • BDehydration from overuse of diuretics
   • CAn acute asthma exacerbation
   • DNormal age-related changes that need not be reported

   Why: In congestive heart failure the weakened heart cannot move blood forward effectively, so fluid backs up, producing orthopnea (breathlessness when lying flat) and dependent edema of the feet and ankles that worsens through the day. Dehydration, the closest distractor, would instead present with dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and low blood pressure rather than swelling. These findings are abnormal and must be documented and reported to the provider.

   Reference Domain 2B (k39 signs and symptoms of common conditions); NHLBI heart failure

9. A 68-year-old reports knee and hip pain that is worse after activity and at the end of the day, with brief stiffness on rising, affecting mainly the right knee. Which type of arthritis do these findings most suggest?

   • AOsteoarthritis, a degenerative wear-and-tear loss of joint cartilageCorrect
   • BRheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disease with symmetric joint involvement
   • CGout caused by uric acid crystals in the great toe
   • DSeptic arthritis caused by bacterial infection of the joint

   Why: Osteoarthritis is degenerative loss of articular cartilage in weight-bearing joints; pain typically worsens with use and eases with rest, and involvement is often asymmetric with only brief morning stiffness. Rheumatoid arthritis is the closest distractor but is a systemic autoimmune disease that typically involves small joints symmetrically and causes morning stiffness lasting more than an hour. The MA reports the findings; the provider makes the diagnosis.

   Reference Domain 2B (k39 signs, symptoms, etiology); NIAMS osteoarthritis vs rheumatoid arthritis

10. A patient is diagnosed with tinea pedis (athlete's foot). This condition is caused by which type of organism?

    • AA bacterium
    • BA virus
    • CA fungusCorrect
    • DA protozoan

    Why: Tinea infections, including athlete's foot and ringworm of the body, are caused by dermatophyte fungi such as Trichophyton, and they are treated with antifungal medication rather than antibiotics. Despite the common English name ringworm, no worm is involved, which is the misconception behind the parasite-type distractor.

    Reference Domain 2B (k39 etiology); CDC ringworm (tinea) clinical overview, dermatophyte fungi

Topics inside this domain

• Medical assistant scope of practice
• Standard vs transmission-based precautions
• Vital sign normal ranges and technique errors
• Blood pressure categories and measurement errors
• Specimen labeling and patient identification

Drill other domains

• Foundational Knowledge and Basic Science (10%)
• Patient Intake and Vitals (9.3%)
• General Patient Care (18.7%)
• Infection Control and Safety (10%)
• Point of Care Testing and Laboratory Procedures (6%)
• Phlebotomy (8%)

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